Sample Mini GRE Mock Test (2025 Format)

Instructions:

This sample GRE mock test is designed to give you an overview of the GRE General Test format and question types. In an actual GRE, each section is timed. Try to pace yourself according to the suggested times.

Section 1: Analytical Writing

Task: Analyze an Issue

Time Allotted: 30 minutes

Instructions:

You will be given a brief quotation that states or implies an issue of general interest and specific instructions on how to respond to that issue. You will have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response in which you develop a position on the issue according to the specific instructions. A response to any other issue will receive a score of zero.

Prompt:

“Governments should focus more on solving the immediate problems of today rather than trying to solve the anticipated problems of the future.”

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might not hold true and explain how these considerations shape your position.

Section 2: Verbal Reasoning – Section 1

Number of Questions: 3

Suggested Time: Approximately 5 minutes (Actual GRE: 12 questions in 18 minutes)

Instructions:

This section contains Reading Comprehension, Text Completion, and Sentence Equivalence questions.

Question 1: Reading Comprehension

Read the following passage and answer the question.

The rise of “citizen science,” where non-professionals participate in scientific research, has been a topic of much discussion. Proponents argue it democratizes science, increases public engagement, and allows for data collection on an unprecedented scale. For instance, birdwatchers contributing to ornithological databases have provided invaluable data for tracking avian population changes. However, critics raise concerns about data quality, the potential for misinterpretation by untrained individuals, and the ethical implications of using volunteer labor. Ensuring rigorous training and validation protocols is therefore crucial if citizen science is to realize its full potential without compromising scientific integrity.

The primary purpose of the passage is to:

(A) advocate for the unrestricted expansion of citizen science initiatives.

(B) detail the historical development of citizen science.

(C) discuss the benefits and drawbacks of citizen science and suggest a condition for its success.

(D) criticize the methodologies currently employed in most citizen science projects.

(E) compare citizen science with traditional scientific research.

Question 2: Text Completion

For the following question, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Despite the initial (i) ________ surrounding the new technology, early adopters found its practical applications to be surprisingly (ii) ________, leading to a slower adoption rate than anticipated.

Blank (i)	Blank (ii)
(A) skepticism	(D) revolutionary
(B) fanfare	(E) mundane
(C) indifference	(F) complex

Question 3: Sentence Equivalence

Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

The diplomat was praised for her ________ handling of the sensitive negotiations, which could have easily escalated into a major international crisis.

(A) adroit

(B) precarious

(C) clumsy

(D) dexterous

(E) volatile

(F) conventional

Section 3: Quantitative Reasoning – Section 1

Number of Questions: 3

Suggested Time: Approximately 5 minutes (Actual GRE: 12 questions in 21 minutes)

Instructions:

This section contains Quantitative Comparison, Problem Solving (Multiple Choice – single answer, Multiple Choice – multiple answers), and Numeric Entry questions. An on-screen calculator would be available in an actual test.

Question 1: Quantitative Comparison

Compare Quantity A and Quantity B. Select one of the following answer choices:

(A) Quantity A is greater.

(B) Quantity B is greater.

(C) The two quantities are equal.

(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Given: x > 0

Quantity A: x2+2x+1

Quantity B: (x+1)2

Question 2: Problem Solving (Multiple Choice – Single Answer)

If $3a-2=7$, what is the value of $5a+1$?

(A) 9

(B) 12

(C) 15

(D) 16

(E) 21

Question 3: Numeric Entry

A rectangular garden is 12 feet long and 5 feet wide. If a fence is to be built around the garden, what is the perimeter of the garden in feet?

Enter your answer as an integer.

______ feet

Section 4: Verbal Reasoning – Section 2

Number of Questions: 3

Suggested Time: Approximately 5 minutes (Actual GRE: 15 questions in 23 minutes)

Instructions:

This section contains Reading Comprehension, Text Completion, and Sentence Equivalence questions.

Question 1: Reading Comprehension

Read the following passage and answer the question.

Many historians argue that the invention of the printing press was the single most important factor in the spread of the Renaissance and the Reformation. By making texts widely available and affordable, it broke the monopoly on information previously held by the clergy and nobility. This allowed new ideas to circulate rapidly, fostering intellectual debate and challenging established orthodoxies. While other factors like increased trade and urbanization played roles, the printing press acted as a powerful catalyst.

The passage suggests that the printing press’s primary impact was to:

(A) increase the wealth of printers and booksellers.

(B) make a wider range of people sources of information.

(C) reduce the influence of artists and sculptors.

(D) encourage conformity in thought across Europe.

(E) improve the literacy rates primarily among the nobility.

Question 2: Text Completion

For the following question, select one choice for the blank that best completes the text.

The ancient ruins, though ________ by centuries of neglect and harsh weather, still offered tantalizing glimpses into the advanced civilization that once thrived there.

(A) embellished

(B) preserved

(C) dilapidated

(D) constructed

(E) venerated

Question 3: Sentence Equivalence

Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

The scientist’s ________ claims about discovering a new element were met with considerable skepticism from the academic community, pending further verification.

(A) modest

(B) unsubstantiated

(C) groundbreaking

(D) irrefutable

(E) uncorroborated

(F) meticulous

Section 5: Quantitative Reasoning – Section 2

Number of Questions: 3

Suggested Time: Approximately 6 minutes

 

Instructions:

This section contains Quantitative Comparison, Problem Solving (Multiple Choice – single answer, Multiple Choice – multiple answers), and Numeric Entry questions.

Question 1: Quantitative Comparison

Compare Quantity A and Quantity B. Select one of the following answer choices:

(A) Quantity A is greater.

(B) Quantity B is greater.

(C) The two quantities are equal.

(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

A set of 5 distinct positive integers has an average (arithmetic mean) of 10.

Quantity A: The smallest possible value of the largest integer in the set.

Quantity B: 14

Question 2: Problem Solving (Multiple Choice – Select One or More Answer Choices)

If x is an integer such that x2<20, which of the following could be values of x?

Indicate all such values.

(A) -5

(B) -4

(C) 0

(D) 3

(E) 4

(F) 5

Question 3: Problem Solving (Multiple Choice – Single Answer)

A store sells a shirt for $40. If the store offers a 15% discount on the shirt, what is the final sale price of the shirt after the discount?

(A) $6

(B) $25

(C) $34

(D) $38.50

(E) $46

Answer Key & Brief Explanations

Section 2: Verbal Reasoning – Section 1

1. Answer: (C)
   • Explanation: The passage introduces citizen science, discusses its benefits (democratizes, public engagement, data scale) and drawbacks (data quality, misinterpretation, ethics), and concludes by stating that training/validation is crucial for its success. This matches option (C).
2. Answer: Blank (i) – (B) fanfare; Blank (ii) – (E) mundane
   • Explanation: “Despite” indicates a contrast. If there was “fanfare” (excitement), the contrast would be that its applications were “mundane” (ordinary, not exciting), leading to slower adoption.
3. Answer: (A) adroit and (D) dexterous
   • Explanation: Both “adroit” and “dexterous” mean skillful and clever, especially in the use of hands or body, or in this context, mentally agile and skillful in handling a situation.

Section 3: Quantitative Reasoning – Section 1

1. Answer: (C)
   • Explanation: Quantity A is x2+2x+1. This is the expanded form of a perfect square trinomial (x+1)2. Thus, Quantity A = (x+1)2, which is identical to Quantity B.
2. Answer: (D)
   • Explanation: 3a−2=7⟹3a=9⟹a=3.Then, 5a+1=5(3)+1=15+1=16.
3. Answer: 34
   • Explanation: Perimeter of a rectangle = $2\times (\text{length}+\text{width})=2\times (12+5)=2\times 17=34$ feet.

Section 4: Verbal Reasoning – Section 2

1. Answer: (B)
   • Explanation: The passage states the printing press “broke the monopoly on information… allowed new ideas to circulate rapidly.” This implies it made information accessible to more people, making them sources or consumers of information beyond the clergy/nobility. Option (B) captures this idea of broadening access and participation in the information sphere.
2. Answer: (C) dilapidated
   • Explanation: “Though” indicates a contrast. If the ruins still offered glimpses into an advanced civilization, the contrasting word should describe their poor condition. “Dilapidated” means in a state of disrepair or ruin as a result of age or neglect.
3. Answer: (B) unsubstantiated and (E) uncorroborated
   • Explanation: If the claims were met with “skepticism” pending “verification,” it implies the claims lacked proof. Both “unsubstantiated” and “uncorroborated” mean not supported by evidence or proof.

Section 5: Quantitative Reasoning – Section 2

1. Answer: (C)
   • Explanation: If the average of 5 distinct positive integers is 10, their sum is 5×10=50. To make the largest integer as small as possible, we must make the other four distinct positive integers as large as possible before reaching the value of the largest.Let the integers be a,b,c,d,e in increasing order.To minimize e, we maximize a,b,c,d.Since they are distinct positive integers, the smallest possible values for a,b,c,d that are less than e would be e−4,e−3,e−2,e−1.

     Alternatively, to make the largest integer (e) as small as possible, the other four distinct positive integers must be the smallest possible distinct positive integers: 1, 2, 3, 4. Their sum is 1+2+3+4=10.

     So, 1+2+3+4+e=50⟹10+e=50⟹e=40. This is the largest possible value.

     To make the largest integer the smallest possible value, the integers must be as close together as possible.

     If they were 8,9,10,11,12, sum is 50. Largest is 12.

     If they were x,x+1,x+2,x+3,x+4. Sum is 5x+10=50⟹5x=40⟹x=8. The integers are 8, 9, 10, 11, 12. Largest is 12.

     Let’s re-evaluate. To make the largest integer as small as possible, the integers must be “bunched up” as much as possible around the mean.

     If the integers are n,n+1,n+2,n+3,n+4. Their sum is 5n+10.

     5n+10=50⟹5n=40⟹n=8.

     The integers are 8, 9, 10, 11, 12. The largest is 12. So Quantity A is 12.

     Wait, the question asks for the smallest possible value of the largest integer.

     Let the 5 distinct positive integers be a<b<c<d<e.

     Sum = a+b+c+d+e=50.

     To minimize e, we must maximize a,b,c,d relative to e.

     This means a,b,c,d should be e−4,e−3,e−2,e−1 assuming e−4≥1.

     (e−4)+(e−3)+(e−2)+(e−1)+e=50

     5e−10=50

     5e=60

     e=12.

     This works if e−4≥1⟹12−4=8≥1. So the set could be 8, 9, 10, 11, 12. The largest is 12.

     Quantity A = 12.

     Quantity B = 14.

     Therefore, Quantity B is greater. My initial reasoning was flawed.

     Let’s re-check: To make the largest integer as small as possible, the integers should be consecutive or nearly consecutive.

     If they are x,x+1,x+2,x+3,x+4. Sum is 5x+10=50⟹5x=40⟹x=8. Set: {8, 9, 10, 11, 12}. Largest is 12.

     Can the largest be smaller than 12? No, because if the largest is 11, the maximum sum of 5 distinct positive integers is 11+10+9+8+7=45<50.

     So the smallest possible value for the largest integer is 12.

     Quantity A = 12. Quantity B = 14.

     Thus, Quantity B is greater.

     Corrected Answer for Quant Section 2, Q1: (B)

2. Answer: (B), (C), (D), (E)
   • Explanation: We need integers x such that x2<20.(A) (−5)2=25, not < 20.(B) (−4)2=16, < 20. (Correct)(C) (0)2=0, < 20. (Correct)

     (D) (3)2=9, < 20. (Correct)

     (E) (4)2=16, < 20. (Correct)

     (F) (5)2=25, not < 20.

3. Answer: (C)
   • Explanation: Discount amount = 15 of $40 = 0.15 \times 40 = $6.Final sale price = Original price – Discount = $40 – $6 = $34.

Disclaimer: This is a sample mini GRE mock test created for illustrative purposes only. It is not an official GRE test. For official practice materials, please refer to ETS Website. The number of questions and time allocations in this sample are reduced for brevity.

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